Subject: The name YHVH known from the beginning Date: Thu, 12 Feb 1998 23:20:58 +0000 To: "Hebraic Heritage Newsgroup"<heb_roots_chr@geocities.com>
From: Jan Kapteyn To: heb_roots_chr@geocities.com Subject: Hebrew glossary Shalom Johann I have received your Hebrew glossary via Email from the Hebraic roots group and I admire the amount of work done on this project. However, there is one point I would like you to give some prayer full consideration to. You made the following comment by the name El Shaddai. <El Shaddai <The All-Sufficient and Almighty One. Until the time of Mosheh, the <Almighty made Himself known to the patriarchs in the character <expressed by the name El Shaddai. Ever since Mosheh, He has also <revealed Himself in the character expressed by the name <YHWH-everlasting, escalating, manifest existence expressed in loyal <covenantal love. < This often suggested meaning, has been caused by a possible wrong translation of Exodus 6:3. Quoting the NASB it says: " and I appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as God Almighty, but by my name (?) Lord I did not made Myself known to them." One of YHVH's principle is (Deut. 19:15): "by the mouth of two witnesses or by the mouth of three witnesses a matter shall be confirmed." This to goes for Scripture. Any Biblical conclusion or a way of translation has to be proved, and can be, by at least two other places in Scripture. The conclusion drawn from this translation of Ex.6:3 can not be confirmed from other Scripture. However, it can be proven from Scripture that the name Yahweh was known from the early beginnings. We have to go to the Hebrew text to do this. Our translations are, due to the substitutions used, not reliable to do this. First of all the name Yahweh (YHVH) appears 141 times in Genesis. That could be explained by saying that, Moshe knew the name and he wrote Genesis. But Moshe, according to our believes, wrote inerrant. This means that he must have quoted verbatim, the words which the people used. Let us start with Adam and Eve. In Gen.4:1, Eve said: "fatomer koniytiey iesh et-Yahweh" Translated " and she said I have gotten a man directly from Yahweh." Next is Abraham, in Gen.15:2 it says: "fayomer abram adonai yahweh" translated: "and says Abram my sovereign Yahweh" and as third one, some one outside Israel, Laban. In Gen.30:27 it says: "Yahweh biglaleach" "Yahweh has blessed me through you" If you excuse my phonetics, then here are three proofs that people used the name Yahweh before Moshe. What about Ex. 6:3. First of all there are no punctuation marks in the Hebrew. The intonation has to be observed from the context. The context from Ex.5 and 6, teaches us that Yahweh got annoyed with the objections of Moshe. So He says: "Ani Yahweh faera el-abraham el-yitzchak fe'el-yaakov be'el shadai ooshemi yahweh lo nodati lahem" which we could translate: " I am Yahweh and appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as the almighty God and (was) My name Yahweh not known to them?" This translation which is legitimate, does not contradict the use of the name Yahweh before Moshe. I hope you will consider this not as a criticism, but as a sharing of opinion. With friendly greetings from, Jan -- J.C.Kapteyn The Netherlands Home Page http://www.pi.net/~kapteynj ************************************************************************